Spencer’s favorite log property!,
a^log_b(c)=c^log_b(a) for a, b, c, bigger than 1,
blackpenredpen,
math for fun,
source
Spencer’s favorite log property!,
a^log_b(c)=c^log_b(a) for a, b, c, bigger than 1,
blackpenredpen,
math for fun,
source
There is a shorter proof. Just take log_b of both sides of equation
log_b(a^log_b(c))=log_b(c^log_b(a))
then use property of log of power (power becomes multiplier of log function)
log_b(c)*log_b(a)=log_b(a)*log_b(c)
and this is an obvious identity
Very cool !! :) Hey, have you ever thought about using a smaller microphone?
Sorry, but this super-long proof is just ridiculous[ly stupid]!! [EDIT: maybe stupid is too much..]
Let’s rephrase the problem and try solving it in the comments:
Goal: “We can switch ‘A’ and ‘C’ in ‘A^log_B(C)’”
Proof: Hmm… Let’s see what’s going on here… We have a log base B in the exponent, our base is A though, let’s fix that!
A^log_B(C) = (B^log_B(A))^log_B(C) = B^(log_B(A)*log_B(C))
—oh… and we’re done, the ‘*’ is symmetric!
Does anyone know what's the name of the song at the end of the video? It sounds amazing
You could've proved this in two lines. Take log[B] of both sides of the original equation, and apply the exponent property of logarithms. By the commutative property of multiplication the expression on the LHS = the expression on the RHS. QED
Alternative proof: just take log_b of both sides and take out the powers (2 line proof). Also, conditions needed are just A, B, C > 0 and B not 1. Nice video though.
My favorite is for what value of x does in(log(x))=log(in(x))
There is a much simpler explanation. Just take the log_B of both sides to get: log_B(C)*log_B(A) = log_B(A)*log_B(C). One or two steps, and DONE. Also I believe the actual restriction is A,B,C > 0 and B != 1. I consider it bad form to not give precise conditions.
satisfying property !!
Dude you are super cool